w***@hotmail.com
2013-02-23 21:56:35 UTC
Just wondering if anyone can shed any light on this for me. Pakistan became independent in 1947 and from 1947 to 1956 was a monarchy with the British monarch as monarch in a personal union (like Canada etc. today). In 1954, still a monarchy (but with the adoption of a republican constitution being banded about), Pakistan adopted Arms which, whilst not a fantastic example of good heraldry, certainly counts as such (being on a shield and blazonable to boot. Now, the College of Arms had/has a policy (for want of a better term) of granting to former colonies that were due to been granted independence Arms, usually as monarchies in a personal union with the British crown (which was the case in Canada, Australia, New Zealand, Ghana, Nigeria, Sierra Leone, Tanganyika, Jamaica, Uganda, Kenya, Malawi, St. Lucia, Antigua and Barbuda, St. Kitts and Nevis, Grenada, the Bahamas, Barbados, Mauritius, Ceylon, The Gambia, South Africa, Belize, St. Vincent and the Grenadines and Guyana), and also I believe in a few cases to former colonies that became republics on independence. (I believe this was the case for the Seychelles, Zambia, and Botswana.) My question is, why didn't Pakistan, as one of the realms of HM the Queen at the time, request the aid of the College of Arms in granting and designing the Arms and was there anything wrong with them not doing so from an heraldic-legal point of view?